So there's a fun video on Youtube about how
Krakatoa destroyed the world in 535 CE. Unfortunately, the video was made in
1999 and we have learned a lot since then, so it becomes just another urban
legend.
The eruption definitely happened and it definitely
was as severe as they say. Its results no doubt included the oldest recorded
episode of bubonic plague. But we learned in, for example, 2012, that syphilis
existed in Pompeii before the Vesuvius eruption, and in England in the 1200s
CE. The Columbian origin of syphilis was invented by Jean Astruc in the 1700s.
His other claim to infamy is inventing Documentary Hypothesis, which has a zero
probability of being true due to false facts and fallacies of logic. You can
read about that here.
So people may have been getting bubonic plague for centuries, it's just that
its symptoms were not recorded or at least not recorded well enough to
recognize.
One of the pieces of information used in the video
is the Grail story from France, to suggest that England was
devastated. The Grail story cited is from the 1200s CE French Vulgate cycle.
All 8 volumes are available in facsimile on Internet Archive, in the early
French in which they were written. Is it reliable?
If this were a record of an oral tradition, it
would have examples of what Axel Olrik documented in Principles for
Oral Narrative Research, about which I wrote here.
One of Olrik’s findings is that oral traditions always begin from a cultural or
historical reality. Written material – not so much. There are examples of
Olrik's principles in the Jewish Torah, the Mahabharata, the Popul Vuh, the
Romance of Three Kingdoms, as well as Africa's Mwindo epic and Sumerian
mythology, Greek mythology and the fairy tales collected by the Grimm brothers.
The French Vulgate starts out as a representation
of part of Christian history. By the 1200s, it could have copied from older written
works. It could also contain elements of French Christian oral tradition. The
repeated sets of threes at the start of the first volume point that way; so do
the repeated sets of threes at the start of the Chinese Romance of Three
Kingdoms.
But the Vulgate brings in a character missing from
the Welsh Triads with their references to Arthur’s court. Lancelot has no
origin in the Triads. He is in the Vulgate so as to be the greatest knight in the
world in the material sense, only to be overthrown by his son Galahad who is
greater in a moral sense. The point of Galahad’s superiority is that he gets to
see the Grail, a Christian concept. There’s more resemblance in this to the
Aeneid, a work invented in writing by Vergil to connect the Aeneas of the Iliad’s
Troy, with Roman Romulus and Remus, and their political heir Augustus. Whatever
oral elements exist in the Vulgate, they represent a) examples of Olrik's principles and therefore they are not culture-specific; b) French Christian culture not British Christian culture; and c) medieval culture, not the culture of 7 centuries earlier. So we can't use the French Vulgate as evidence for the supposed
destruction of British and Irish culture in the 500s CE, after which the
Anglo-Saxons took over.
What evidence exists for a disaster in Britain in
the 500s CE? How do we identify a population collapse or bottleneck? One way is
through DNA. For example, the Jewish and Samaritan kohens who are descended in the male
line from Aharon, the brother of Moshe, really do have a solid male DNA
relationship that is unique. There is no such DNA evidence for Levites not descended
from Aharon. The reason is easy to see. Kohens cannot marry widows or
divorcees, meaning that the children of their wives are their children. The
other Levites could have married widows or divorcees who were pregnant by their
former husbands, no matter what precautions were taken.
At the time of filming, and even more so when Keys
was doing his research, DNA analysis was in its infancy. The human genome
project started in 1990 and was completed in 2003. Only after that could the
data be analyzed to identify human populations and their migrations. The facts
show that in London, up to 50% of men have Y-chromosome DNA that is Celtic, and of course it is
better than 75% in Ireland. That means a population of Celtic males from west
(with higher percentages) to southeast. The old supposition that in the 500s, the
Anglo-Saxons nearly wiped out the British, who retreated to Wales, doesn’t hold
water. The percentage is lower in the east due to immigration, but it should be
much closer to zero if the Celtic population there was wiped out.
In the east of England, in the Anglo-Saxon settlements,
there are also Celtic material remains. It’s either a sign of peaceful trade or of
peaceful coexistence. The latter leads to the lower but well above zero
percentage of male Celtic DNA in London.
What probably happened was that British settlement
habits were decentralized. You’ll understand this better when I tell you that
in the U.S. in 1800, 95% of residents were rural, not urban. That’s 14
centuries after the Roman withdrawal from Britain, at a time when the U.S. was
putting up monumental buildings for our new government.
In Britain in the 500s CE, centers included Roman
fortifications, but they were visited by traders more than they were settled by
the British, and the settlers had no reason to stay once the Romans withdrew.
Bath as a center of Roman culture did not long survive the Roman withdrawal,
showing that the British had no nostalgia for Roman culture and did not consider
centralization important even after a couple of centuries of experience. Nor
did they acquire the habit of monumental building from the Romans; they got it
from Christianity. The Canterbury cathedral was built in 507 – before the “British
devastation” while the Anglo-Saxons were still mostly pagan.
The "Celts being wiped out" urban legend no doubt has a number of roots. One is Augustine's mission to Christianize the Anglo-Saxons. Britain and Ireland had been Christian for a century or so, but the Saxons in Germany remained pagan until Charlemagne converted them by force.
It’s not possible that Pope Gregory didn’t know about the Christians in Britain, Ireland
and Scotland. Sending Augustine to convert the Anglo-Saxons does not require
that the British had been wiped out. They were already Christian and Gregory
didn’t have to worry about them, unless he objected to them not forcing
conversion on the Anglo-Saxons. Whoever started the myth of “Celts being wiped
out,” however, all the scribes in England had to stick to that story.
That myth stroked the egos of the Victorians, who
were ruled by Germans. England was bigoted against Catholicism in general and
the Irish in particular. It would have been an inconvenient truth that at the
same time as Augustine's mission to England, Irish (and Scots) missions to Europe brought
with them copies of Christian texts that had survived in Ireland but
disappeared from Europe during the pagan invasions. These missions went on for
half a century after the "catastrophe" supposedly wiped out pre-Saxon
culture in the British Isles. Travel requires a reliable source of food at every point along the road; it's called logistics, and missions don't work in a devastated landscape that can't support its own inhabitants, in the same way as Napoleon's forces dwindled to relatively nothing on the retreat from Moscow over land subjected to a "scorched earth" policy.
There’s also material evidence of population in
Britain. Before the Anglo-Saxons revived London as a port, trade was still
coming in at Cornwall, the most important Celtic port on the island, with
access to the western mines. Through this port, no doubt, came the African red
slip ware found in British sites that date to the time that the Celts
supposedly fled to the Welsh mountains. ARSW was a luxury product. Somebody had
the money to buy it in the middle of the "catastrophe". This was an
opening for the bubonic plague to reach England from Byzantium. Not from
Europe, where the Roman Empire was in freefall. From Africa; the plague started
in Ethiopia.
Since the Celts were not wiped out, there’s no
reason to suppose that plague reached the British Isles during the “catastrophe”.
We’ll need actual plague victims for that. The French Vulgate claims of devastation
are an exaggeration, possibly modeled on the jeremiads in the Pentateuch. France itself didn’t undergo devastation.
The video tries to claim that France and Spain
formed at this time due to the effects of the catastrophe. What we currently
know about France and Spain of the 500s supports no such claim. The Frankish
kingdom under the Merovingians had its capital at Paris at this time. There is
no chronological coordination between their decline and the Krakatoa eruption,
and in any case the Capetians were there to take up the slack. Likewise in
Spain the Arian Visigothic kingdoms were in full swing. They tried to
invade Africa, although they failed.
The video ignores China except to say they were
glad to see the Avars migrate west and bother somebody else (Byzantium). The
final collapse of the Han Dynasty occurred in the 380s CE, over a century
before the eruption. If the "catastrophe" was as bad as Keys wants us
to think, China might have stayed split into the Northern and Southern
Dynasties for 300 years. It didn't. The Mandate of Heaven passed, and the Sui
Dynasty formed by the 590s CE. It was a natural and normal event captured
in the aphorism at the start of the Romance of Three Kingdoms: 话说天下大势,分久必合,合久必分,the general trend is that what is divided tends to unite; once
united, it tends to divide.
The video never mentions India, which is a hell of
a lot closer to Krakatoa than England. The decline at the end of the Gupta
period coordinates with the attacks of the Alchon Huns and the way they damaged
trade outside the subcontinent. Buddhism suffered a decline due to persecution.
There was also a horrible flood -- not after the desiccation caused by the
eruption, but almost at the time the eruption occurred -- in the Bihar region
that was a mainstay of the Gupta empire. If nobody has looked for evidence of
the Krakatoa eruption in India, it's possibly because there are strong reasons
for why the Guptas fell, independent of the eruption.
Ignoring India is an example of the fallacy of
sampling bias. When you commit sampling bias, you fail the Test of Occam's
Razor and your conclusions cannot be accepted.
Sure, there is evidence of volcanic eruptions.
There is evidence in Ireland of the Thera eruption of 1628 BCE that devastated
Minoan culture on Thera and Palaikastro, which were some 160 kilometers apart.
(Ireland is over 4,000 kilometers from Thera.) There could be deposits from
an eruption of the 530s CE – but not of Krakatoa.
What did happen, then? Well, look at the fact that
two of the biggest cities in the world suffered depopulation at the time. But
you can't blame it all on Krakatoa. Keys did not know about Ilopango, in El
Salvador, which was much closer to Teotihuacan than Krakatoa was. The data on
Ilopango mostly was published after 2000. Ilopango would have had a much worse
effect on Teotihuacan than Krakatoa, but Keys wouldn't have known about that,
nor would it have been reflected in the video. There is, however, a different
Youtube video that covers it.
If there's ash in Ireland from 535 CE give or
take, it is more likely to have an Ilopango chemical signature than a Krakatoa
one, although El Salvador is almost twice as far from Ireland as Thera is. Probably
it was darker or the sunsets were redder and the temperatures cooler than
before the two eruptions, more so than what happened in the 1880s after the
smaller Krakatoa eruption. But it didn’t wipe out the Celts.
So there's a double reason why the 500s CE was such a bad time in human history, but it doesn't add up to global collapse of civilization. Keys could only claim what he did because of something I talk about on my Gibbon thread. You always have to look at the provenance of the information and then see if there's later information available. If you don't, you're going to fall for claims that have been overturned, or even fall for an urban legend that you can't disbelieve because you don't know enough.
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