But it’s how
Thucydides writes, and while I can’t find the reference any more, I distinctly
remember a character in a novel complaining that he didn’t understand the Greek
of his Christian scripture because “the verbs kept disappearing”. He was
reading “Grenglish” expecting Greek to work like English. No two languages work
alike. Pretending they do is a sign of a teacher who doesn’t really understand
what they are teaching.
Thucydides gets across verbal
concepts part of the time by verbal derivatives formerly known as participles
and infinitives, but which I am going to rename for a couple of reasons.
The first is this very issue that
they can substitute for conjugated verbs in some contexts.
The second is that changing the
label removes a cognitive dissonance, the same as I just removed the cognitive
dissonance of using a “present tense” in a past situation.
The third is that they get me to
another set of re-labeling in a grammatical subject called “voice” that is
specific to Classical Greek, and which will correct another misconception
spread by grammars of Greek since time immemorial.
So I pointed to the last part of
subsection one and I asked what the adverb euthus, “immediately” was
modifying.
…καὶ τὸ ἄλλο Ἑλληνικὸν ὁρῶν ξυνιστάμενον
πρὸς ἑκατέρους, τὸ μὲν εὐθύς, τὸ δὲ καὶ διανοούμενον.
This clause has three verbal
derivatives, which I have bolded. The Perseus word tool labels all of them
participles. The function of a participle is an adjective or substantive.
That’s not what these participles do; they substitute for verbs.
All three of them have endings which
resemble adjectives; White gives declensions of participles on pages 230-231,
sections 754 and 755. But there’s a problem. While horon is obviously a
masculine singular nominative like luon in the paradigm, there’s nothing
that looks like ksunistamenon or dianooumenon. He covers those on
page 130, starting with section 492.
At the bottom of page 130, White
identifies the participles he is discussing as adverbial in some cases, but he
never deals with the fact that they substitute for conjugated verbs.
Why does Thucydides use unconjugated
verbs where we would use normal verbs in English? This gets into a 21st
century realization about languages that also applies to Biblical Hebrew, and
is present in Modern Standard Arabic.
No comments:
Post a Comment